” Why would the 'peg' used related to the competitiveness of the market?” I meant that comment as in you will probably have to offer a LIBOR based product if the competitor is offering those.
” why they (the syndicates, etc) would prefer to use LIBOR instead of prime.” You know, I really never thought of that, but they do. The larger the institution and the more syndicated deals the lender is involved is the more frequent LIBOR based loans are. For example, I started working at a bank with less than $100MM in assets and never saw a LIBOR based loan. I saw a few at my second bank {about $3,500MM in assets}, but I have seen many at my current employer, which is considerably bigger.
Now I could make some educated guesses, which are pretty much off the top of my head.
First, I would think that maybe there is a shift to this type of “base rate” due in part to the increasing internationalization of finance. Second, it could be psychological since the loan officer might want to use LIBOR to make it an easier sell to his superiors {loan committee or whomever has the lending authority to approve the loan}.
After all, what sounds better:
Prime
less 100 basis points {denoting a discount} or Thirty day LIBOR
plus 190 basis points {denoting a premium}?
” Do they (have the potential to) move differently” You know one of our EVPs made this comment in one of our committees, but I really never researched historical prime and LIBOR to see which one reacts first or lags. If I had to guess, LIBOR is going to change first in the case of a significant rate shift. After all that rate is set daily if I am not mistaken...
” Is that another industry thing that's "just the way it is"?” I blame it on lenders trying to appear sophisticated.